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Interview Questions on TCP/IP and UDP in Computer Networks set-2



1) UDP needs the ........... address to deliver the user datagram to the correct application process

A. port

B. application

C. internet

D. intranet


2) The ........ was originally developed as a mechanism to enable disk-less hosts to be remotely booted over a network as workstations, routers, terminal concentrators and so on.

A. ICMP

B. BOOTP

C. UDP

D. ARP


3) Which of the following does UDP guarantee?

A. Flow control

B. Connection-oriented delivery

C. Data control

D. None of the above


4) .......... provides a framework for passing configuration information to hosts on a TCP/IP network.

A. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol(DHCP)

B. Address Resolution Protocol(ARP)

C. Internet Protocol(IP)

D. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP)


5) The source port address on the UDP user datagram header defines .........

A. the sending computer

B. the receiving computer

C. the process running on the sending computer

D. the process running on the receiving computer


6) The mechanisms supported by DHCP for IP address allocation on a TCP/IP network is/are ...

A. Automatic allocation

B. Dynamic allocation

C. Manual allocation

D. All of th above


7) UDP is called a .......... transport protocol.

A. connection-oriented, unreliable

B. connectionless, reliable

C. connectionless, unreliable

D. connection, reliable


8) DHCP in TCP/IP network assigns an IP address for a limited period of time. Such a network address is called a ......

A. lease

B. limited network

C. timed network

D. assigned network


9) UDP does not add anything to the services of IP except for providing .......... communication.

A. node to node

B. process to process

C. host to host

D. interface to interface


10) The use of ......... allows centralized configuration of multiple clients.

A. ICMP

B. BOOTP

C. UDP

D. ARP


11) UDP is an acronym for ............

A. User Delivery Protocol

B. User Datagram Procedure

C. User Datagram Protocol

D. User Delivery Procedure


12) ............ is where users typically interact with the TCP/IP network.

A. Link layer

B. Network layer

C. Transport layer

D. Application layer


13) The local host and the remote host are defined using IP addresses. To define the processes, we need second identifiers called .........

A. UDP addresses

B. transport addresses

C. port addresses

D. TCP addresses


14) The ............. is responsible for communicating with the actual network hardware.

A. Link layer

B. Network layer

C. Transport layer

D. Application layer


15) UDP packets are encapsulated in .......

A. an Ethernet frame

B. an TCP segment

C. an IP datagram

D. an Ethernet packets


16) ............ is the protocol suite for the current Internet.

A. TCP/IP

B. NCP

C. UDP

D. ACM


17) UDP uses ........ to handle outgoing user datagrams from multiple processes on one host.

A. flow control

B. multiplexing

C. demultiplexing

D. data control


18) .......... provides full transport layer services to applications.

A. TCP

B. UDP

C. IP

D. ARP


19) UDP uses ...... to handle incoming user datagrams that go to different processes on the same host.

A. flow control

B. multiplexing

C. demultiplexing

D. data control


20) In the sending computer, UDP receives a data unit from the ......... layer.

A. application

B. transport

C. IP

D. interface


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Solved MCQ on TCP/IP and UDP in Computer Networks set-1



1) TCP is a .......... protocol.

A. stream-oriented

B. message-oriented

C. block-oriented

D. packet-oriented


2) Which of the following is not the layer of TCP/IP protocol.

A. Physical layer

B. link layer

C. network layer

D. transport layer.


3) TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a ....

A. user datagram

B. segment

C. datagram

D. packet


4) The .......... of TCP/IP protocol is responsible for figuring out how to get data to its destination.

A. application layer

B. link layer

C. network layer

D. transport layer.


5) TCP is a(n) ........... transport protocol.

A. protocol delivery

B. reliable

C. best-effort delivery

D. effortless delivery


6) ......... is the protocol that hides the underlying physical network by creating a virtual network view.

A. Internet Protocol(IP)

B. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP)

C. Address Resolution Protocol(ARP)

D. Bootstrap Protocol(BOOTP)


7) To use the services of UDP, we need ......... socket addresses.

A. four

B. two

C. three

D. four


8) Which of the following is not the name of Regional Internet Registries(RIR) to administer the network number portion of IP address.

A. American Registry for Internet Numbers(ARIN)

B. Reseaux IP Europeans(RIPE)

C. Europeans Registry for Internet Numbers(ERIN)

D. Asia Pacific Network Information Center(APNIC)


9) UDP packets are called .......

A. user datagrams

B. segments

C. frames

D. packets


10) ............ addresses use 21 bits for the and 8 bits for the portion of the IP address for TCP/IP network.

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D


11) UDP packets have fixed-size header of .......... bytes.

A. 16

B. 8

C. 32

D. 64


12) .......... messages are never sent in response to datagrams with a broadcast or a multicast destination address.

A. ICMP

B. ARP

C. IP

D. BOOTP


13) TCP assigns a sequence number to each segment that is being sent. The sequence number for each segment is number of the ....... byte carried in that segment.

A. first

B. last

C. middle

D. zero


14) .......... is responsible for converting the higher level protocol address (IP addresses) to physical network addresses.

A. Internet Protocol(IP)

B. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP)

C. Address Resolution Protocol(ARP)

D. Bootstrap Protocol(BOOTP)


15) UDP and TCP are both ......... layer protocols.

A. data link

B. network

C. transport

D. interface


16) ........... is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the data from upper layer.

A. TCP

B. UDP

C. IP

D. ARP


17) Which of the following functions does UDP perform?

A. Process-to-process communication

B. Host-to-host communication

C. End-to-end reliable data delivery

D. Interface-to-interface communication.


18) A port address in TCP/IP is .........bits long.

A. 32

B. 48

C. 16

D. 64


19) When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a datagram, .....

A. delivery is complete

B. a transport layer protocol takes over

C. a header is added

D. a session layer protocol takes over


20) TCP/IP is a .......... hierarchical protocol suite developed before the OSI model.

A. seven-layer

B. five-layer

C. six-layer

D. four-layer


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Objective Questions on Routing protocol in computer networks set-3



1) The principle of ...........states that the routing table is stored from the longest mask to the shortest mask.

A. first mask matching

B. shortest mask matching

C. longest mask matching

D. very shortest mask matching


2) ............ are two popular examples of distance vector routing protocols.

A. OSPF and RIP

B. RIP and BGP

C. BGP and OSPF

D. BGP and SPF


3) ...... deals with the issues of creating and maintaining routing tables.

A. Forwarding

B. Routing

C. Directing

D. None directing


4) During an adverse condition, the length of time for every device in the network to produce an accurate routing table is called the ..........

A. accurate time

B. integrated time

C. convergence time

D. average time


5) A ......... routing table contains information entered manually.

A. static

B. dynamic

C. hierarchical

D. non static


6) Which of the following is/are the uses of static routing methods.

A. To manually define a default route.

B. To provide more secure network environment.

C. To provide more efficient resource utilization.

D. All of the above


7) A .......... routing table is updated periodically using one of the dynamic routing protocols.

A. static

B. dynamic

C. hierarchical

D. non static


8) Which of the following is not the category of dynamic routing algorithm.

A. Distance vector protocols

B. Link state protocols

C. Hybrid protocols

D. Automatic state protocols


9) In ......... forwarding, the full IP address of a destination is given in the routing table.

A. next-hop

B. network-specific

C. host-specific

D. default


10) To build the routing table, ........... algorithms allow routers to automatically discover and maintain awareness or the paths through the network.

A. Static routing

B. Dynamic routing

C. Hybrid routing

D. Automatic routing


11) In .......... forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the routing table.

A. next-hop

B. network-specific

C. host-specific

D. default


12) To build the routing table, ........... method use preprogrammed definitions representing paths through the network.

A. Static routing

B. Dynamic routing

C. Hybrid routing

D. Automatic routing


13) In .......... forwarding, the destination addresses is a network address in the routing table.

A. next-hop

B. network-specific

C. host-specific

D. default


14) ......... allow routers to exchange information within an AS.

A. Interior Gateway Protocol(IGP)

B. Exterior Gateway Protocol(EGP)

C. Border Gateway Protocol(BGP)

D. Static Gateway Protocol(SGP)


15) In .......... forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next hop instead of complete route information.

A. next-hop

B. network-specific

C. host-specific

D. default


16) Which of the following is an example of Exterior Gateway Protocol.

A. Open Short Path First(OSPF)

B. Border Gateway Protocol(BGP)

C. Routing Information Protocol(RIP)

D. All of the above


17) A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a network is classified as a .........

A. unicast

B. multicast

C. broadcast

D. point to point


18) ........ allow the exchange of summary information between autonomous systems.

A. Interior Gateway Protocol(IGP)

B. Exterior Gateway Protocol(EGP)

C. Border Gateway Protocol(BGP)

D. Dynamic Gateway Protocol(DGP)


19) A robust routing protocol provides the ability to ......... build and manage the information in the IP routing table.

A. dynamically

B. statically

C. hierarchically

D. All of the above


20) State True of False for definition of an autonomous system(AS).

i) An AS is defined as a physical portion of a larger IP network.

ii) An AS is normally comprised of an internetwork within an organization.

A. i-True, ii-True

B. i-True, ii-False

C. i-False, ii-True

D. i-False, ii-False

   

Answers:


1) C. longest mask matching
2) B. RIP and BGP
3) B. Routing
4) C. convergence time
5) A. static
6) D. All of the above
7) B. dynamic
8) D. Automatic state protocols
9) C. host-specific
10) B. Dynamic routing
11) D. default
12) A. Static routing
13) B. network-specific
14) A. Interior Gateway Protocol(IGP)
15) A. next-hop
16) B. Border Gateway Protocol(BGP)
17) C. broadcast
18) B. Exterior Gateway Protocol(EGP)
19) A. dynamically
20) C. i-False, ii-True



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Solved MCQ on Routing algorithm in computer networks set-2



1) Alternate and adaptive routing algorithm belongs to ..........

A. static routing

B. permanent routing

C. standard routing

D. dynamic routing


2) .......... protocol is a popular example of a link state routing protocol.

A. SPF

B. BGP

C. RIP

D. OSPF


3) An example of routing algorithm is ...

A. TELNET

B. TNET

C. ARPANET

D. ARNET


4) The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol(EIGRP) is categorized as a ........

A. Distance vector routing protocols

B. Link state routing protocols

C. Hybrid routing protocols

D. Automatic state routing protocols


5) In .......... routing, the routing table hold the address of just the next hop instead of complete route information.

A. next-hop

B. host-specific

C. network-specific

D. default


6) .......... was originally developed to provide a loop-free method of exchanging routing information between autonomous systems.

A. OSPF

B. EIGRP

C. BGP

D. RIP


7) In ............ routing, the destination address is a network address in the routing tables.

A. next-hop

B. host-specific

C. network-specific

D. default


8) Logical partitioning of the network, authentication and faster convergence rate are the advantages of ....

A. OSPF

B. EIGRP

C. BGP

D. RIP


9) The .......... flag indicates the availability of a router.

A. up

B. host specific

C. gateway

D. added by redirection


10) The types of autonomous system defined by BGP is/are ..

A. Stub

B. Multi-homed

C. Transit

D. All of the above


11) For a direct deliver, the ........ flag is on.

A. up

B. host specific

C. gateway

D. added by redirection


12) A .......... AS has connections to two or more autonomous systems and carries both local and transit traffic.

A. Stub

B. Multi-homed

C. Transit

D. All of the above


13) In unicast routing, each router in the domain has a table that defines a ......... path tree to possible destinations.

A. average

B. longest

C. shortest

D. very longest


14) .............. supports the simultaneous use of multiple unequal cost paths to a destination.

A. OSPF

B. EIGRP

C. BGP

D. RIP


15) In multicast routing, each involved router needs to construct a ......... path tree for each group.

A. average

B. longest

C. shortest

D. very longest


16) Which of the following is/are the benefits provided by EIGRP?

i) Faster convergence

ii) partial routing updates

iii) High bandwidth utilization

iv) Route summarization

A. i, iii and iv only

B. i, ii and iii only

C. ii, iii and iv only

D. i, ii and iv only


17) In OSPF, a .......... link is a network is connected to only one router.

A. point-to-point

B. transient

C. stub

D. multipoint


18) ......... is the process of consolidating multiple contiguous routing entries into a single advertisement.

A. Faster convergence

B. Partial routing updates

C. Route summarization

D. Multiple protocols


19) In OSPF, when the link between two routers is broken, the administration may create a ........ link between them using a longer path that probably goes through several routers.

A. point-to-point

B. transient

C. stub

D. multipoint


20) ........... is the process of introducing external routers into an OSPF network.

A. Route redistribution

B. Route summarization

C. Route reintroducing

D. Route recreation


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Solved MCQ on Routing protocol in computer networks set-1



1) Which of the following is not the requirement of routing function?

A. Correctness

B. Robustness

C. Delay time

D. Stability


2) The ......... protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called the metric, to each route.

A. OSPF

B. RIP

C. BGP

D. BBGP


3) If there is only one routing sequence for each source destination pair, the scheme is known as .....

A. static routing

B. fixed alternative routing

C. standard routing

D. dynamic routing


4) The Open Shortest Path First(OSPF) protocol is an intra domain routing protocol based on ........ routing.

A. distance vector

B. link state

C. path vector

D. non distance vector


5) An/A ..........routing scheme is designed to enable switches to react to changing traffic patterns on the network.

A. static routing

B. fixed alternative routing

C. standard routing

D. dynamic routing


6) The Routing Information Protocol(RIP) is an intra domain routing based on ........routing.

A. distance vector

B. link state

C. path vector

D. distance code


7) The term ........ refers to which node or nodes in the network are responsible for the routing decision.

A. decision place

B. routing place

C. node place

D. switching place


8) In ....... routing the least cost route between any two nodes is the minimum distance.

A. path vector

B. distance vector

C. link state

D. switching


9) For centralized routing the decision is made by some designated node called ......

A. designated center

B. control center

C. network center

D. network control center


10) For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into .......

A. wide area networks

B. autonomous networks

C. local area networks

D. autonomous system


11) In .......... a route is selected for each destination pair of nodes in the network.

A. flooding

B. variable routing

C. fixed routing

D. random routing


12) To create a neighborhood relationship, a router running BGP sends an .......... message.

A. open

B. update

c. keep alive

D. close


13) The technique which requires no network information required is ....

A. flooding

B. variable routing

C. fixed routing

D. random routing


14) An area is ....

A. part of an AS

B. composed of at least two AS

C. another term for an AS

D. composed more than two AS


15) Which of the following produces high traffic network?

A. Variable routing

B. Flooding

C. Fixed routing

D. Random routing


16) In ........... routing, we assume that there is one node (or more) in each autonomous system that acts on behave of the entire autonomous system.

A. distant vector

B. path vector

C. link state

D. multipoint


17) When a direct delivery is made, both the deliverer and receiver have the same ....

A. routing table

B. host id

C. IP address

D. Net id


18) In OSPF, a ......... link is a network with several routers attached to it.

A. point-to-point

B. transient

C. stub

D. multipoint


19) In ....... routing, the mask and the destination address are both 0.0.0.0 in routing table.

A. next-hop

B. host-specific

C. network-specific

D. default


20) In .......... the router forwards the receive packet through only one of its interfaces.

A. unicasting

B. multicasting

C. broadcasting

D. point to point


Answers:


1) C. Delay time 
2) A. OSPF
3) B. fixed alternative routing
4) B. link state
5) C. standard routing 
6) A. distance  vector
7) A. decision place
8) B. distance vector
9) D. network control center
10) D. autonomous system
11) C. fixed routing
12) B. update
13) A. flooding
14) A. part of an AS
15) B. Flooding
16) B. path vector
17) D. Net id
18) B. transient
19) D. default  
20) B. multicasting


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Solved MCQ on Searching and Sorting Algorithms in Data Structure set-2



1) The worst case occur in linear search algorithm when .......

A. Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B. Item is not in the array at all

C. Item is the last element in the array

D. Item is the last element in the array or item is not there at all


2) If the number of records to be sorted is small, then ...... sorting can be efficient.

A. Merge

B. Heap

C. Selection

D. Bubble


3) The complexity of sorting algorithm measures the ...... as a function of the number n of items to be sorter.

A. average time

B. running time

C. average-case complexity

D. case-complexity


4) Which of the following is not a limitation of binary search algorithm?

A. must use a sorted array

B. requirement of sorted array is expensive when a lot of insertion and deletions are needed

C. there must be a mechanism to access middle element directly

D. binary search algorithm is not efficient when the data elements more than 1500.


5) The Average case occurs in linear search algorithm ..........

A. when item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B. when item is not the array at all

C. when item is the last element in the array

D. Item is the last element in the array or item is not there at all


6) Binary search algorithm cannot be applied to ...

A. sorted linked list

B. sorted binary trees

C. sorted linear array

D. pointer array


7) Complexity of linear search algorithm is .........

A. O(n)

B. O(logn)

C. O(n2)

D. O(n logn)


8) Sorting algorithm can be characterized as ......

A. Simple algorithm which require the order of n2 comparisons to sort n items.

B. Sophisticated algorithms that require the O(nlog2n) comparisons to sort items.

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above


9) The complexity of bubble sort algorithm is .....

A. O(n)

B. O(logn)

C. O(n2)

D. O(n logn)


10) State True or False for internal sorting algorithms.

i) Internal sorting are applied when the entire collection if data to be sorted is small enough that the sorting can take place within main memory.

ii) The time required to read or write is considered to be significant in evaluating the performance of internal sorting.

A. i-True, ii-True

B. i-True, ii-False

C. i-False, ii-True

D. i-False, ii-False


11) The complexity of merge sort algorithm is ......

A. O(n)

B. O(logn)

C. O(n2)

D. O(n logn)


12) .......... is putting an element in the appropriate place in a sorted list yields a larger sorted order list.

A. Insertion

B. Extraction

C. Selection

D. Distribution


13) ............order is the best possible for array sorting algorithm which sorts n item.

A. O(n logn)

B. O(n2)

C. O(n+logn)

D. O(logn)


14) ......... is rearranging pairs of elements which are out of order, until no such pairs remain.

A. Insertion

B. Exchange

C. Selection

D. Distribution


15) ............ is the method used by card sorter.

A. Radix sort

B. Insertion

C. Heap

D. Quick


16) Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide and conquer type?

A. Bubble sort

B. Insertion sort

C. Merge sort

D. Selection sort


17) ........ sorting algorithm is frequently used when n is small where n is total number of elements.

A. Heap

B. Insertion

C. Bubble

D. Quick


18) Which of the following sorting algorithm is of priority queue sorting type?

A. Bubble sort

B. Insertion sort

C. Merge sort

D. Selection sort


19) Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search algorithm?

A. The list must be sorted

B. There should be the direct access to the middle element in any sub list

C. There must be mechanism to delete and/or insert elements in list.

D. Number values should only be present


20) Partition and exchange sort is ........

A. quick sort

B. tree sort

C. heap sort

D. bubble sort

Answers:


1) D. Item is the last element in the array or item is not there at all
2) C. Selection
3) B. running time 
4) D. binary search algorithm is not efficient when the data elements more than 1500.
5) A. when item is somewhere in the middle of the array
6) D. pointer array
7) A. O(n)
8) C. Both of the above
9) C. O(n2)
10) B. i-True, ii-False
11) D. O(n logn)
12) A. Insertion
13) C. O(n+logn)
14) B. Exchange
15) A. Radix sort
16) C. Merge sort
17) B. Insertion
18) D. Selection sort
19) C. There must be mechanism to delete and/or insert elements in list.
20) A. quick sort


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MCQ on Searching, Merging and Sorting Methods in Data Structure set-1



1) Finding the location of a given item in a collection of items is called ......

A. Discovering

B. Finding

C. Searching

D. Mining


2) Which of the following is an external sorting?

A. Insertion Sort

B. Bubble Sort

C. Merge Sort

D. Tree Sort


3) Very slow way of sorting is ..........

A. Insertion sort

B. Heap sort

C. Bubble sort

D. Quick sort


4) Which of the following is an internal sorting?

A. Tape Sort

B. 2-way Merge Sort

C. Merge Sort

D. Tree Sort


5) Sorting a file F usually refers to sorting F with respect to a particular key called .....

A. Basic key

B. Primary key

C. Starting key

D. Index key


6) The time complexity of quick sort is ........

A. O(n)

B. O(logn)

C. O(n2)

D. O(n logn)


7) Selection sort first finds the .......... element in the list and put it in the first position.

A. Middle element

B. Largest element

C. Last element

D. Smallest element


8) Quick sort is also known as ........

A. merge sort

B. tree sort

C. shell sort

D. partition and exchange sort


9) The operation that combines the element is of A and B in a single sorted list C with n=r+s element is called ....

A. Inserting

B. Mixing

C. Merging

D. Sharing


10) A tree sort is also known as ......... sort.

A. quick

B. shell

C. heap

D. selection


11) .......... sorting is good to use when alphabetizing large list of names.

A. Merge

B. Heap

C. Radix

D. Bubble


12) The easiest sorting is ........

A. quick sort

B. shell sort

C. heap sort

D. selection sort


13) Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide and conquer type?

A. Bubble sort

B. Insertion sort

C. Quick sort

D. Merge sort


14) Merging k sorted tables into a single sorted table is called ......

A. k way merging

B. k th merge

C. k+1 merge

D. k-1 merge


15) The function used to modify the way of sorting the keys of records is called ........

A. Indexing function

B. Hash function

C. Addressing function

D. All of the above


16) If the number of record to be sorted large and the key is short, then ...... sorting can be efficient.

A. Merge

B. Heap

C. Radix

D. Bubble


17) The total number of comparisons in a bubble sort is ....

A. O(n logn)

B. O(2n)

C. O(n2)

D. O(n)


18) If the number of record to be sorted large and the key is long, then ...... sorting can be efficient.

A. Merge

B. Heap

C. Quick

D. Bubble


19) The time complexity of heap sort is ....

A. O(n)

B. O(logn)

C. O(n2)

D. O(n logn)


20) The complexity of selection sort is .......

A. O(n)

B. O(n2)

C. O(n logn)

D. O(logn)



Answers:


1) C. Searching
2) C. Merge Sort
3) A. Insertion sort
4) D. Tree Sort
5) B. Primary key
6) D. O(n logn)
7) D. Smallest element
8) D. partition and exchange sort
9) C. Merging
10) C. heap
11) C. Radix
12) D. selection sort
13) C. Quick sort
14) A. k way merging
15) B. Hash function
16) C. Radix
17) A. O(n logn)
18) C. Quick
19) D. O(n logn)
20) B. O(n2) 


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Objective Questions on List and Linked List in Data Structure set-2



1) To insert a new node in linked list free node will be available in ........

A. Available list

B. Avail list

C. Free node list

D. Memory space list


2) A singly linked list is also called as ........

A. linked list

B. one way chain

C. two way chain

D. right link


3) A ..... list is a header list where the node points back to the header node.

A. Circular header

B. Grounded header

C. Two way header

D. One way header


4) A doubly linked list has .......... pointers with each node.

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3


5) Header linked lists are frequently used for maintaining ........ in memory.

A. Polynomials

B. Binomial

C. Trinomial

D. Quadratic equation


6) The pointer that points to the first node in the list is ........

A. FIRST

B. AVAIL

C. TOP

D. REAR


7) Two-way list may be maintained in memory by means of .............

A. Queues

B. Linear arrays

C. Non linear arrays

D. Stacks


8) A doubly linked list is also called as ..........

A. linked list

B. one way chain

C. two way chain

D. right link


9) The list that requires two pointer variables FIRST and LAST is called ........

A. Circular list

B. Header list

C. One way list

D. Two way list


10) If the availability list is null, then the condition is said to be .........

A. nil block

B. availability list underflow

C. availability list overflow

D. memory loss


11) The list which has its own pointer is called ........

A. pointer list

B. self pointer

C. free pool

D. own pointer


12) Which of the following is two way lists?

A. Grounded header list

B. Circular header list

C. Linked list with header and trailer nodes

D. None of the above


13) A .......... is a header list where the last node contains the null pointer.

A. grounded header list

B. bottom header list

C. down header list

D. dropped header list


14) RLINK is the pointer pointing to the ...

A. successor node

B. predecessor node

C. head node

D. last node


15) A ............. is a header list where the last node points back to the header node.

A. rounded header list

B. circular header list

C. common header list

D. forward header list


16) In a linked list, insertion can be done as .........

A. beginning

B. end

C. middle

D. all of the above


17) In a two-way lists each node is divided into .......parts.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


18) The disadvantage in using a circular linked list is .......

A. it is possible to get into infinite loop

B. last node points to fist node.

C. time consuming

D. requires more memory space.


19) Which of the following conditions checks available free space in avail list?

A. Avail=Null

B. Null=Avail

C. Avail=Max stack

D. Avail=Top


20) A linear list in which each node has point to the predecessor and successors nodes is called ........

A. singly linked list

B. circular linked list

C. doubly linked list

D. linear linked list


continue reading

Solved MCQ on List and Linked List in Data Structure set-1



1) Linked lists are best suited .....

A. for relatively permanent collections of data.

B. for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are constantly changing.

C. data structure

D. for none of above situation


2) The operation of processing each element in the list is known as ......

A. sorting

B. merging

C. inserting

D. traversal


3) The situation when in a linked list START=NULL is ....

A. Underflow

B. Overflow

C. Houseful

D. Saturated


4) Each node in singly linked list has ........ fields.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 1

D. 4


5) Which of the following is two way lists?

A. Grounded header list

B. Circular header list

C. Linked list with header and trailer nodes

D. List traversed in two directions


6) Which is the pointer associated with the availability list?

A. FIRST

B. AVAIL

C. TOP

D. REAR


7) Value of first linked list index is ....

A. 0

B. 1

C. -1

D. 2


8) In linked lists there are no NULL links in

A. single linked list

B. linear doubly linked list

C. circular linked list

D. linked list


9) Each node in a linked list must contain at least .....

A. Three fields

B. Two fields

C. Four fields

D. Five fields


10) The dummy header in linked list contain .....

A. first record of the actual data

B. last record of the actual data

C. pointer to the last record of the actual data

D. middle record of the actual data


11) In a linked list the .......... field contains the address of next element in the list.

A. Link field

B. Next element field

C. Start field

D. Info field


12) LLINK is the pointer pointing to the ...

A. successor node

B. predecessor node

C. head node

D. last node


13) .......... refers to a linear collection of data items.

A. List

B. Tree

C. Graph

D. Edge


14) A run list is ......

A. small batches of records from a file

B. number of elements having same value

C. number of records

D. number of files in external storage


15) A ...... indicates the end of the list.

A. Guard

B. Sentinel

C. End pointer

D. Last pointer


16) A ........ is a linear list in which insertions and deletions are made to from either end of the structure.

A. circular queue

B. random of queue

C. priority

D. dequeue


17) Indexing the ........ element in the list is not possible in linked lists.

A. middle

B. first

C. last

D. any where in between


18) A linear list in which the pointer points only to the successive node is ......

A. singly linked list

B. circular linked list

C. doubly linked list

D. none of the above


19) .......... may take place only when there is some minimum amount(or) no space left in free storage list.

A. Memory management

B. Garbage collection

C. Recycle bin

D. Memory management


20) A linear list in which the last node points to the first node is ........

A. singly linked list

B. circular linked list

C. doubly linked list

D. none of the above
continue reading

Objective Questions on Tree and Graph in Data Structure set-2



1) The post order traversal of binary tree is DEBFCA. Find out the pre order traversal.

A. ABFCDE

B. ADBFEC

C. ABDECF

D. ABDCEF


2) While converting binary tree into extended binary tree, all the original nodes in binary tree are .......

A. Internal nodes on extended tree

B. External nodes on extended tree

C. Vanished on extended tree

D. Intermediate nodes on extended tree


3) The in-order traversal of tree will yield a sorted listing of elements of tree in ........

A. binary trees

B. binary search trees

C. heaps

D. binary heaps


4) In a binary tree, certain null entries are replaced by special pointers which point to nodes higher in the tree for efficiency. These special pointers are called .........

A. Leaf

B. Branch

C. Path

D. Thread


5) In a head tree .....

A. values in a node is greater than every value every value in left sub tree and smaller than right sub tree.

B. values in a node is greater than every value in children of it.

C. conditions.

D. terms.


6) The in order traversal of tree will yield a sorted listing of elements of tree in ....

A. Binary trees

B. Binary search trees

C. Merging

D. AVL Trees


7) In a graph if e=(u,v) means .......

A. u is adjacent to v but v is not adjacent to u.

B. e begins at u and ends at v

C. u is node and v is an edge.

D. both u and v are edges.


8) A binary tree whose every node has either zero or two children is called .........

A. Complete binary tree

B. Binary Search tree

C. Extended binary tree

D. E2 tree


9) If every node u in G is adjacent to every other node v in G,A graph is said to be ........

A. isolated

B. complete

C. finite

D. strongly connected.


10) The post order traversal of a binary tree is DEBFCA. Find out the pre order Traversal.

A. ABFCDE

B. ADBFEC

C. ABDECF

D. ABDCEF


11) In a graph if e=[u,v], then u and v are called

A. endpoints of e

B. adjacent nodes

C. neighbours

D. all of the above


12) In-order traversing a tree resulted E A C K F H D B G; the pre-order traversal would return.

A. FAEKCDBHG

B. FAEKCDHGB

C. EAFKHDCBG

D. FEAKDCHBG


13) A connected graph T without any cycles is called .

A. a tree graph

B. free tree

C. a tree

D. All of above


14) In linked representation of Binary trees LEFT[k] contains the ........ of at the node N, where k is the location.

A. Data

B. Location and left child

C. Right child address

D. Null value


15) If every node u in G adjacent to every other node v in G, A graph is said to be

A. isolated

B. complete

C. finite

D. strongly connected


16) Three standards ways of traversing a binary tree T with root R .......

A. Prefix, infix, postfix

B. Pre-process, in-process, post-process

C. Pre-traversal, in-traversal, post-traversal

D. Pre-order, in-order, post-order


17) A graph is said to be ....... if every node u in G is adjacent to every other node v in G.

A. Absolute

B. Entire

C. Inclusive

D. Complete


18) In threaded binary tree ......... points to higher nodes in tree.

A. Info

B. Root

C. Threads

D. Child


19) A graph is said to be ....... if its edges are assigned data.

A. Tagged

B. Marked

C. Lebeled

D. Sticked


20) If node N is a terminal node in a binary tree then its .........

A. Right tree is empty

B. Left tree is empty

C. Both left & right sub trees are empty

D. Root node is empty

continue reading

Solved MCQ on Tree and Graph in Data Structure set-1



1) The operation of processing each element in the list is known as ......

A. sorting

B. merging

C. inserting

D. traversal


2) Other name for directed graph is ..........

A. Direct graph

B. Digraph

C. Dir-graph

D. Digraph


3) Binary trees with threads are called as .......

A. Threaded trees

B. Pointer trees

C. Special trees

D. Special pointer trees


4) Graph G is .............. if for any pair u, v of nodes in G there is a path from u to v or path from v to u.

A. Leterally connected

B. Widely Connected

C. Unliterally connected

D. Literally connected


5) In Binary trees nodes with no successor are called ......

A. End nodes

B. Terminal nodes

C. Final nodes

D. Last nodes


6) A connected graph T without any cycles is called ........

A. free graph

B. no cycle graph

C. non cycle graph

D. circular graph


7) Trees are said .......... if they are similar and have same contents at corresponding nodes.

A. Duplicate

B. Carbon copy

C. Replica

D. Copies


8) A connected graph T without any cycles is called a ........

A. A tree graph

B. Free tree

C. A tree d

D. All of the above


9) Every node N in a binary tree T except the root has a unique parent called the ......... of N.

A. Antecedents

B. Predecessor

C. Forerunner

D. Precursor


10) In a graph if E=(u,v) means ......

A. u is adjacent to v but v is not adjacent to u

B. e begins at u and ends at v

C. u is processor and v is successor

D. both b and c


11) Sequential representation of binary tree uses ........

A. Array with pointers

B. Single linear array

C. Two dimentional arrays

D. Three dimentional arrays


12) In a graph if e=[u,v], Then u and v are called ........

A. End points of e

B. Adjacent nodes

C. Neighbours

D. All of the above


13) TREE[1]=NULL indicates tree is ........

A. Overflow

B. Underflow

C. Empty

D. Full


14) A binary tree whose every node has either zero or two children is called .......

A. complete binary tree

B. binary search tree

C. extended binary tree

D. data structure


15) Linked representation of binary tree needs ......... parallel arrays.

A. 4

B. 2

C. 3

D. 5


16) The depth of complete binary tree is given by ......

A. Dn = n log2n

B. Dn= n log2n+1

C. Dn = log2n

D. Dn = log2n+1


17) In a 2-tree, nodes with 0 children are called ............

A. Exterior node

B. Outside node

C. Outer node

D. External node


18) Which indicates pre-order traversal?

A. Left sub-tree, Right sub-tree and root

B. Right sub-tree, Left sub-tree and root

C. Root, Left sub-tree, Right sub-tree

D. Right sub-tree, root, Left sub-tree



19) In a extended-binary tree nodes with 2 children are called ........

A. Interior node

B. Domestic node

C. Internal node

D. Inner node


20) A terminal node in a binary tree is called ............

A. Root

B. Leaf

C. Child

D. Branch


continue reading

Interview Questions on Stack and Queue in Data Structure set-2



1) The queue in which the insertion takes place in the first position after of last element is a ......

A. priority

B. dequeue

C. circular

D. linked


2) Before inserting into stack one must check the condition .........

A. Overflow

B. Underflow

C. Maximum elements

D. Existing elements


3) The another name of dequeue is .........

A. divided queue

B. distributed queue

C. double ended queue

D. design queue


4) Before deletion condition into stack ...... has to be checked.

A. Overflow

B. Underflow

C. Maximum elements

D. Existing elements


5) In dequeue, insertion and deletion takes place of ..........

A. front, rear end

B. only at rear end

C. only at front end

D. both the ends


6) When does Top value of stack change in insertion process?

A. Before insertion

B. After insertion

C. At the time of insertion

D. While checking overflow


7) A queue in which insertion and deletion takes places from any position is called ......

A. circular queue

B. random of queue

C. priority

D. dequeue


8) Deletion in the linked stack takes place by deleting ........

A. Node pointed by the start process.

B. End of the list

C. Beginning of the list

D. Middle of the list


9) Which of the following name does not relate to stacks?

A. FIFO lists

B. LIFO list

C. piles

D. push-down lists


10) The condition ........ indicate the queue is empty.

A. Front=Null

B. Null=Front

C. Front=Rear

D. Rear=Null


11) Which of the following is not the type of queue?

A. Ordinary queue

B. Special queue

C. Priority queue

D. Circular queue


12) The value of REAR is increased by 1 when .......

A. An element is deleted in a queue

B. An element is traversed in a queue

C. An element is added in a queue

D. An element is merged in a queue


13) The operations that can be done in a circular queue is/are .....

A. Insert from the front end

B. Delete from front end

C. Display queue contents

D. All of the above


14) The term dequeue is the contraction of the name ........

A. Double ended queue

B. Double sided queue

C. Double headed queue

D. Double address queue


15) The various operations that can be performed on stacks is/are .....

A. Insert an item into the stack

B. Delete an item from the stack

C. Display the contents of the stack

D. All of the above


16) ............. is a collection of elements such that each element has been assigned a processing priority.

A. Priority queue

B. Procedure queue

C. Main queue

D. Interrupt queue


17) The deletion operation in stack is called ......

A. insert

B. push

C. pop

D. top


18) Link fields holds pointers to the .......... element in the linked representation of stack.

A. Neighbouring

B. Last

C. First

D. Middle


19) The pointer associated with the stack is ...........

A. front

B. rear

C. top

D. link


20) Reversing a great deal of space for each stack in memory will ...........

A. Decrease the numbers of times overflow may occur

B. Increase the numbers of times overflow may occur

C. Increase the number of times underflow may occur

D. Increase the number of times underflow may occur.


continue reading

Solved MCQ on Stack and Queue in Data Structure set-1



1) ......... form of access is used to add and remove nodes from a queue.

A. LIFO, Last In First Out

B. FIFO, First In First Out

C. Both a and b

D. None of these


2) In liked representation of stack ....... holds the elements of the stack.

A. INFO fields

B. TOP fields

C. LINK fields

D. NULL fields


3) ........ form of access is used to add remove nodes from a stack.

A. LIFO

B. FIFO

C. Both A and B

D. None of these


4) In the linked representation of the stack ......... behaves as the top pointer variable of stack.

A. Stop pointer

B. Begin pointer

C. Start pointer

D. Avail pointer


5) New nodes are added to the ......... of the queue.

A. Front

B. Back

C. Middle

D. Both A and B


6) In linked representation of stack the null pointer of the last node in the list signals ..........

A. Beginning of the stack

B. Bottom of the stack

C. Middle of the stack

D. In between some value


7) What happens when you push a new node onto a stack?

A. The new node is placed at the front of the linked list

B. The new node is placed at the back of the linked list

C. The new node is placed at the middle of the linked list

D. No Changes happens


8) A queue is a .........

A. FIFO

B. LIFO

C. FILO

D. LOFI


9) Which of the following name does not relate to stacks?

A. FIFO lists

B. LIFO lists

C. Piles

D. Push down lists


10) The retrieval of items in a stack is ........... operation.

A. push

B. pop

C. retrieval

D. access


11) The term push and pop is related to

A. Array

B. Lists

C. Stacks

D. Trees


12) Which is the pointer associated with the stack?

A. FIRST

B. FRONT

C. TOP

D. REAR


13) The elements are removal from a stack in .......... order.

A. Reverse

B. Hierarchical

C. Alternative

D. Sequential


14) The insertion operation in the stack is called .........

A. insert

B. push

C. pop

D. top


15) ...... is the term used to insert an element into stack.

A. Push

B. Pull

C. Pop

D. Pump


16) Stack follows the strategy of ........

A. LIFO

B. FIFO

C. LRU

D. RANDOM


17) .......... is the term used to delete an element from the stack.

A. Push

B. Pull

C. Pop

D. Pump


18) Deletion operation is done using ......... in a queue.

A. front

B. rear

C. top

D. list


19) A pointer variable which contains the location at the top element of the stack is called .....

A. Top

B. Last

C. Final

D. End


20) Which of the following is an application of stack?

A. finding factorial

B. tower of Hanoi

C. infix to postfix

D. all of the above



Answers:



1) B. FIFO, First In First Out
2) A. INFO fields
3) A. LIFO
4) C. Start pointer
5) B. Back
6) B. Bottom of the stack
7) A. The new node is placed at the front of the linked list
8) A. FIFO
9) A. FIFO lists
10) B. pop
11) C. Stacks
12) C. TOP
13) A. Reverse
14) B. push
15) A. Push
16) A. LIFO
17) C. Pop
18) A. front
19) A. Top
20) D. all of the above


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For other more Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs): Click Here

 

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Solved MCQ on Database Backup and Recovery in DBMS set-1



1) Which of the following is not a recovery technique?

A. Deferred update

B. Immediate update

C. Two-phase commit

D. Recovery management


2)Checkpoints are a part of

A. Recovery measures

B. Security measures

C. Concurrency measures

D. Authorization measures


3) ....... deals with soft errors, such as power failures.

A. system recovery

B. media recovery

C. database recovery

D. failure recovery


4) ........... is an essential part of any backup system.

A. Filter

B. Recovery

C. Security

D. Scalability


5) Media recovery deals with ...........

A. disk errors

B. hard errors

C. system errors

D. power failures


6) For a backup/restore system, ............. is a prerequisite for service in a enterprise.

A. Filter

B. Recovery

C. Security

D. Scalability


7) Failure recovery and media recovery fall under ........

A. transaction recovery

B. database recovery

C. system recovery

D. value recovery


8) The .......... consists of the various applications and database that play a role in a backup and recovery strategy.

A. Recovery Manager environment

B. Recovery Manager suit

C. Recovery Manager file

D. Recovery Manager database


9) In which the database can be restored up to the last consistent state after the system failure?

A. Backup

B. Recovery

C. Both

D. None



10) A ........... is a block of Recovery Manager(RMAN)job commands that is stored in the recovery catalogue.

A. recovery procedure

B. recovery block

C. stored block

D. stored script


11) In log based recovery, the log is sequence of .........

A. filter

B. records

C. blocks

D. numbers


12) The enrolling of a database in a recovery catalogue is called .........

A. set up

B. registration

C. start up

D. enrolment



13) .......... is an alternative of log based recovery.

A. Disk recovery

B. Shadow paging

C. Dish shadowing

D. Crash recovery



14) Most backup and recovery commands in ........... are executed by server sessions.

A. Backup Manager

B. Recovery Manager

C. Backup and Recovery Manager

D. Database Manager


15) ........ systems typically allows to replace failed disks without stopping access to the system.

A. RAM

B. RMAN

C. RAD

D. RAID



16) An ......... is an exact copy of a single datafile, archived redo log file, or control file.

A. image copy

B. datafile copy

C. copy log

D. control copy



17) .......... known as memory-style error correcting-code(ECC) organization, employs parity bits.

A. RAID level 1

B. RAID level 2

C. RAID level 3

D. RAID level 4



18) The remote backup site is sometimes called the .......... site.

A. primary

B. secondary

C. ternary

D. None of the above



19) EXP command is used ...........

A. to take Backup of the Oracle Database

B. to import data from the exported dump file

C. to create Rollback segments

D. to create Schedule.



20) The simplest approach to introducing redundancy is to duplicate every disk is called .....

A. mirroring

B. imaging

C. copying

D. All of the above



continue reading

Solved MCQ on Distributed Database Transaction Management set-4



1) Commit and rollback are related to ..........

A. data integrity

B. data consistency

C. data sharing

D. data security


2) The transaction wants to edit the data item is called as .......

A. Exclusive Mode

B. Shared Mode

C. Inclusive Mode

D. Unshared Mode


3) For committing a transaction, the DBMS might discard all the records.

A. after image

B. before image

C. log

D. redo log


4) A sophisticated locking mechanism known as 2-phase locking which includes Growing phase and .......

A. Shrinking Phase

B. Release phase

C. Commit phase

D. Acquire Phase


5) A Transaction ends

A. only when it is Committed.

B. only when it is Rolled-back

C. when it is Committed or Rolled-back

D. only when it is initialized


6) In .........., each transactions there is a first phase during which new lock are acquired.

A. Shrinking Phase

B. Release phase

C. Commit phase

D. Growing Phase


7) A transaction processing system is also called as .......

A. processing monitor

B. transaction monitor

C. TP monitor

D. monitor


8) The transactions are always ......... if it always locks a data item in shared mode before reading it.

A. well formed

B. well distributed

C. well locked

D. well shared


9) .......... servers which is widely used in relational database systems.

A. Data servers

B. Transaction servers

C. Query servers

D. Client servers


10) If a distributed transactions are well-formed and 2-phasedlocked, then ................ is the correct locking mechanism in distributed transaction as well as in centralized databases.

A. two phase locking

B. three phase locking

C. transaction locking

D. well-formed locking


11) ......... property will check whether all the operation of a transaction completed or none.

A. Atomicity

B. Consistency

C. Isolation

D. Durability


12) The total ordering of operations across groups ensures ...........of transactions.

A. serializability

B. synchronizability

C. atomicity

D. durability


13) In which state, the transaction will wait for the final statement has been executed?

A. Active

B. Failed

C. Aborted

D. partially committed


14) The ORDER concurrency control technique is based on the property.

A. ordering mechanism

B. inherent ordering

C. total ordering

D. partial ordering


15) Transactions per rollback segment is derived from .....

A. Db_Block_Buffers

B. Processes

C. shared_Pool_size

D. buffers


16) The ............is responsible for ensuring correct execution in the presence of failures.

A. Database Manager

B. Transaction Manager

C. Recovery Manager

D. Executive Manager


17) A distributed transaction can be ............. if queries are issued at one or more nodes.

A. fully read-only

B. partially read-only

C. fully read-write

D. partially read-write


18) The distributed transaction can be completely read-only and the transaction is started with a .......... READ ONLY statement.

A. DISTRIBUTED_TRANSACTIONS

B. TRANSACTION

C. SET TRANSACTION

D. READ TRANSACTION


19) The initialization parameter ................. controls the number of possible distributed transactions in which a given instance can concurrently participate, both as a client and a server.

A. DISTRIBUTED_TRANSACTIONS

B. TRANSACTION

C. SET TRANSACTION

D. CONTROL TRANSACTION


20) A database administrator can manually force the COMMIT or ROLLBACK of a local ............ distributed transaction.

A. in-force

B. in-doubt

C. in-local

D. in-manual


continue reading

Solved MCQ on Oracle Distributed Transaction set-3



1) A mechanism which ensures that simultaneous execution of more than one transaction does not lead to any database inconsistencies is called .................. mechanism.

A. transaction control

B. transaction management

C. concurrency parallelism

D. concurrency control


2) The transaction wants only to read the data item of mode is called as .......

A. Exclusive Mode

B. Shared Mode

C. Inclusive Mode

D. Unshared Mode


3) Any execution of a set of transactions is called as its .........

A. non-serial schedule

B. serial schedule

C. schedule

D. interleaved schedule


4) ............ is program or set of program that interacts with the database at some point in its execution.

A. A database system

B. A database application

C. Both

D. none


5) .......... component of a database is responsible for ensuring atomicity and durability.

A. recovery management

B. concurrency control

C. storage management

D. query evaluation engine


6) The activity of ensuring atomicity in the presence of Transaction aborts is called ..........

A. transaction control

B. transaction management

C. transaction recovery

D. concurrency control


7) A .............is a set of rules that state when a transaction may lock or unlock each of the data items in the database

A. concurrency control

B. transaction control

C. validation control

D. locking protocol


8) ..................  is a collection of programs performing all necessary action associated with a database.

A. Database associated

B. Database administrator

C. Database application

D. Database management system


9) Which protocol permits release of exclusive locks only at the end of transaction?

A. Graph based protocol

B. Strict two phase locking protocol

C. Two phase locking protocol

D. Rigorous Two phase locking protocol


10) The activity of providing Durability of the transaction is called .....

A. database control

B. transaction management

C. transaction recovery

D. database recovery


11) Which protocol allows a transaction to lock a new data item only if that transaction has not yet unlocked data item?

A. Graph based protocol.

B. Strict two phase locking protocol

C. Two phase locking protocol

D. Time stamp ordering scheme


12) .......... is a collection of application programs that interacts with the database along with DBMS.

A. A database system

B. A database application

C. Database administration

D. Data system


13) ........ ensures that once transaction completes successfully, the results of the operations become permanent.

A. serializability

B. synchronizability

C. atomicity

D. durability


14) A ....... contains information for undoing or redoing all the actions performed by the transactions.

A. save point

B. log

C. node

D. commit_point


15) A ............. is a unit of program execution that accesses and possibly updates various data items.

A. DBMS

B. monitor

C. transaction

D. transistor


16) Transaction is an action used to perform some manipulation on data stored in the ........

A. Memory

B. Record

C. Database

D. All of these


17) A transaction is terminated if it has ........

A. aborted

B. committed

C. running state

D. aborted or committed


18) The two possible communication errors are, Lost messages and .......

A. Network Partitions

B. Lost acknowledgement

C. Timeout

D. log error


19) The only way to undo the effects of a committed transaction is to execute a .......

A. committed transaction

B. compensating transaction

C. supplementary transaction

D. update query


20) In .........., one or more users/programs attempt to access the same data at the same time.

A. concurrency

B. transaction control

C. locking

D. two phase locking



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Solved MCQ on Transaction Management in DBMS set-2



1) In the ............, one transaction inserts a row in the table while the other transaction is half way through its browsing of table.

A. transaction read problem

B. one way read problem

C. serial read problem

D. phantom read problem


2) Transaction processing is associated with everything below except.

A. producing detail, summery, or exception reports

B. recording a business activity

C. confirming an action or triggering a response

D. maintaining data


3) .......... helps solve concurrency problem.

A. locking

B. transaction monitor

C. transaction serializability

D. two phase commit


4) If a transaction acquires a shared lock, then it can perform .......... operation.

A. read

B. write

C. read and write

D. update


5) If a transaction obtains a shared lock on a row, it means that the transaction wants to ..... that row.

A. write

B. insert

C. execute

D. read


6) The node where the distributed transaction originates is called the .......

A. local coordinator

B. starting coordinator

C. global coordinator

D. originating node


7) If a transaction obtains an exclusive lock on a row, it means that the transaction wants to ....... that row.

A. select

B. update

C. view

D. read


8) If a transaction acquires exclusive lock, then it can perform .......... operation.

A. read

B. write

C. read and write

D. update


9) ........ is a specific concurrency problem wherein two transactions depend on each other for something.

A. phantom read problem

B. transaction read problem

C. deadlock

D. locking


10) If a database server is referenced in a distributed transaction, the value of its commit point strength determines which role it plays in the .........

A. two phase commit

B. two phase locking

C. transaction locking

D. checkpoints


11) Transaction .......... ensures that the transaction are being executed successfully.

A. concurrency

B. consistency

C. serialisability

D. non serialiasability


12) The situation in which a transaction holds a data item and waits for the release of data item held by some other transaction, which in turn waits for another transaction, is called .......

A. serialiable schedule

B. process waiting

C. concurrency

D. deadlock


13) ............ protocol grantees that a set of transactions becomes serialisable.

A. two phase locking

B. two phase commit

C. transaction locking

D. checkpoints


14) The global coordinator forgets about the transaction phase is called .........

A. Prepare phase

B. Commit phase

C. Forget phase

D. Global phase


15) In two phase commit, .......... coordinates the synchronization of the commit or rollback operations.

A. database manager

B. central coordinator

C. participants

D. concurrency control manager


16) In two-phase locking protocol, a transaction obtains locks in ........phase.

A. shrinking phase

B. growing phase

C. running phase

D. initial phase


17) A transaction processing system is also called as ........

A. processing monitor

B. transaction monitor

C. TP monitor

D. monitor


18) After the nodes are prepared, the distributed transaction is said to be ......

A. in-doubt

B. in-prepared

C. prepared transaction

D. in-node


19) In .........., we have many mini transactions within a main transaction.

A. transaction control

B. chained transaction

C. nested transaction

D. calling transaction


20) In a two-phase locking protocol, a transaction release locks in ......... phase.

A. shrinking phase

B. growing phase

C. running phase

D. initial phase


continue reading

Solved MCQ on Distributed Transaction Management set-1



1) If the transaction is rolled back, all the database changes made inside the transaction are ......

A. made permanent

B. made temporary

C. copied to the log

D. undone


2) Which of the following is not a property of transactions?

A. Atomicity

B. Concurrency

C. Isolation

D. Durability


3) A ......... ensures that transactions are performed as expected.

A. transaction processing monitor

B. transaction procedure monitor

C. isolation monitor

D. transaction log


4) A transaction that completes its execution successfully is said to be .......

A. committed

B. rolled back

C. partially committed

D. Aborted


5) ........ means that a transaction must execute exactly once completely or not at all.

A. durability

B. consistency

C. atomicity

D. isolation


6) Assume transaction A holds a shared lock R. If transaction B also requests for a shared lock on R.

A. It will result in a deadlock situation

B. It will immediately be rejected

C. It will immediately be granted

D. It will be granted as soon as it is released by A


7) ........... means that when it ends, a transaction must leave the database in a consistent state.

A. Data isolation

B. Data duration

C. Data consistency

D. Data non-reputability


8) The number of transactions executed in a given amount of time is called .........

A. utilization

B. execution rate

c. throughput

D. atomicity


9) Isolation means ......

A. transaction must not interfere with each other

B. transaction must interfere with each other

C. transaction must be in consistent state

D. transaction must be executed immediately


10) Which of the following ensures the atomicity of the transaction?

A. Transaction management component of DBMS

B. Application Programmer

C. Concurrency control component of DBMS

D. Recovery management component of DBMS


11) ........ means that a transaction must make its changes permanent to the database ends.

A. isolation

B. locking

C. durability

D. consistency


12) Throughput means

A. number of transactions that are committed in one hour

B. number of operations in a transaction

C. number of transaction that can be aborted in a given amount of time

D. number of transaction that can be executed in a given amount of time


13) ........ deals with individual transactions.

A. isolate transactions

B. transaction recovery

C. system recovery

D. media recovery


14) The part of a database management system which ensures that the data remains in a consistent state is

A. authorization and integrity manager

B. buffer manager

C. transaction manager

D. file manager


15) ......... protocol is used to perform multiple transactions that execute on different database.

A. commit

B. two phase lock

C. two phase commit

D. locking


16) A transaction can do read and write operation on a data item when it acquires ......

A. read mode

B. exclusive mode

C. shared mode

D. write mode


17) In .......... one transaction overwrites the changes of another transaction.

A. uncommitted read problem

B. lost update problem

C. update lost problem

D. dirty read problem


18) Isolation of the transactions is ensured by

A. Transaction management

B. Application programmer

C. Concurrency control

D. Recovery management


19) In dirty read problem .......

A. one transaction reads an uncommitted value of another transaction

B. one transaction reads the committed value for another transaction

C. one transaction reads another transaction

D. one transaction commits another transaction.


20) A transaction can do only read operation and not write operation on a data item when it acquires ....... lock.

A. read mode

B. exclusive mode

C. shared mode

D. write mode

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